Somebody, anybody tell me what you think. Using Giardia lamblia as
an example, do you think that risk of exposure to this organism has
decreased since the 1960s due to an increase in our knowledge of
the biology, control/prevention measures (i.e., water treatement
processes), etc. that we have gained since that time? That is,
would risk be inversely proportional to knowledge of the risk? What
I am interested in is if you think there is a relationship between
the two. If there is, do other factors, such as socioeconomic ones,
make a possible relationship insignificant? I hope Dr. C. Haas
reads this and responds.
Michael J. Casteel
Arhat at gnn.com; 30MCasteel at sophia.sph.unc.edu
Dept. of Environmental Sciences & Engineering
School of Public Health
University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill
